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Xeno-x - I get your point if no one else does
Only selective reasoning allows someone to quote a bible passage as some kind of infallible law while skipping over any number of passages that don't suit them. Using the "Homosexuality is an abomination" passage as found in Leviticus as an example; every time I hear someone using it these days I repeat a funny thing I saw on TV awhile back. I ask them what country they are from and if they are not Canadians, I offer to buy them as slaves . . . hey it says so right on the same page as the "Homosexuality is an abomination" passage that we can all buy slaves from neighboring countries. My point being the same as the one you make in this post . . . how are some bible passages still considered as infallible while others are deemed as redundant?
posted by
gomedome
on May 7, 2007 at 9:29 AM
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Re: I don't agree with you.
actually i am trying to get some of the most vocal to tell me what is going on.
they say one scripture is all-powerful dogmatic law and they ignore another.
can they have it both ways?
but basically i do agree with you.
I am just basically raising questions.
posted by
Xeno-x
on May 7, 2007 at 8:43 AM
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I don't agree with you.
There are men who are hypocrites who shake the Holy Bible in your face. All of us are sinners. The BIble was written during a patriarchal period. Women were not allowed power, especially in the Bible. i.e., Women bleed and it's considered shameful. M an wrote those words not God. Women have been persecuted for centuries. Why continue, brother? Jesus taught reverence to woman, to the mothers who bleed, to Mary who is of God. (Sorry if I got a little preachy).
LadyCeeMarie
posted by
LadyCeeMarie
on May 7, 2007 at 8:31 AM
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Why blame only women when lot of us are hypocrites .
posted by
afzal50
on May 7, 2007 at 6:26 AM
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